Fundamentals Of Nursing Exam 1 Practice Questions

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Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 Practice Questions: A Comprehensive Review
Preparing for your first fundamentals of nursing exam can be daunting. This comprehensive guide provides numerous practice questions covering key concepts, helping you solidify your understanding and boost your confidence before the big day. We'll cover a broad range of topics, from basic anatomy and physiology to fundamental nursing skills and patient safety. Remember to review your textbook and lecture notes alongside this practice material for optimal exam preparation.
Body Systems and Basic Anatomy & Physiology
1. Which of the following organs is primarily responsible for filtering waste products from the blood?
a) Liver b) Kidneys c) Lungs d) Spleen
Answer: b) Kidneys
Explanation: The kidneys are the primary organs responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and producing urine. The liver, lungs, and spleen have other crucial functions but aren't the main waste filtration organs.
2. What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
a) To transport oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the body b) To digest food and absorb nutrients c) To filter waste products from the blood d) To regulate body temperature
Answer: a) To transport oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the body
Explanation: The respiratory system's primary function is gas exchange – taking in oxygen and expelling carbon dioxide. While the other options are important bodily functions, they are not the main purpose of the respiratory system.
3. The heart's primary function is:
a) To produce hormones. b) To pump blood throughout the body. c) To filter waste products. d) To regulate body temperature.
Answer: b) To pump blood throughout the body.
Explanation: The heart is the central pump of the circulatory system, ensuring blood circulation to all body parts.
Basic Nursing Skills & Procedures
4. Before administering any medication, what is the MOST crucial step a nurse should take?
a) Check the patient's vital signs. b) Verify the medication order three times against the patient's medication administration record (MAR). c) Document the medication administration immediately. d) Educate the patient about the medication's side effects.
Answer: b) Verify the medication order three times against the patient's medication administration record (MAR).
Explanation: The "three checks" (checking the medication order against the MAR three times: before removing medication from storage, before preparing the dose, and before administering to the patient) is a cornerstone of safe medication administration.
5. What is the correct order for removing personal protective equipment (PPE) after caring for a patient with suspected infection?
a) Gloves, gown, goggles, mask b) Gown, gloves, mask, goggles c) Mask, goggles, gown, gloves d) Goggles, mask, gloves, gown
Answer: a) Gloves, gown, goggles, mask
Explanation: Removing PPE in the reverse order of donning minimizes the risk of self-contamination. Gloves are removed first because they are most likely to be contaminated.
6. Which of the following is the BEST method for preventing the spread of infection?
a) Wearing a mask at all times b) Using hand sanitizer infrequently c) Thorough hand hygiene d) Avoiding contact with patients
Answer: c) Thorough hand hygiene
Explanation: Handwashing is the single most effective method for preventing the spread of infection.
7. What is the appropriate technique for assessing a patient's apical pulse?
a) Palpate the radial artery. b) Use a stethoscope to listen over the brachial artery. c) Use a stethoscope to listen over the apex of the heart. d) Count the carotid pulse.
Answer: c) Use a stethoscope to listen over the apex of the heart.
Explanation: The apical pulse is the heartbeat as heard through a stethoscope at the apex of the heart (typically the fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line).
Patient Safety and Legal Considerations
8. What is the most important action to take if a patient reports experiencing chest pain?
a) Offer the patient some water. b) Assess vital signs and notify the physician immediately. c) Administer aspirin without a physician’s order. d) Reassure the patient that it is probably just indigestion.
Answer: b) Assess vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
Explanation: Chest pain can indicate a serious medical emergency (e.g., myocardial infarction). Immediate assessment and physician notification are crucial.
9. What is the primary purpose of incident reporting?
a) To assign blame to individuals involved. b) To identify potential areas for improvement in patient safety. c) To create a negative record for specific staff members. d) To solely fulfill legal obligations.
Answer: b) To identify potential areas for improvement in patient safety.
Explanation: Incident reports are crucial for identifying systemic issues and improving patient safety protocols. They are not primarily intended for blame assignment.
10. What does the acronym "RACE" stand for in the context of fire safety?
a) Rescue, Activate alarm, Confine, Extinguish b) Rescue, Alert, Check, Evacuate c) Respond, Alert, Contain, Extinguish d) Respond, Activate, Check, Evacuate
Answer: a) Rescue, Activate alarm, Confine, Extinguish
Explanation: RACE is a critical acronym for fire safety procedures. Remember to rescue patients, activate the alarm, confine the fire, and extinguish it (if possible and safe to do so).
Medical Terminology and Documentation
11. What does the abbreviation "NPO" mean?
a) Nothing by mouth b) Nasogastric tube placement c) No pain medication d) Normal saline solution
Answer: a) Nothing by mouth
12. Which of the following is the correct way to document a patient's intake and output (I&O)?
a) Use subjective descriptions such as "a lot" or "a little" b) Record I&O in milliliters (mL) or cubic centimeters (cc) c) Estimate I&O visually rather than accurately measuring. d) Only document I&O if the patient is on fluid restriction.
Answer: b) Record I&O in milliliters (mL) or cubic centimeters (cc)
Explanation: Accurate documentation in mL or cc is essential for proper I&O monitoring.
Medication Administration
13. Before administering any medication, what information should you verify?
a) Patient's name and date of birth. b) Medication name, dosage, route, and time of administration. c) Allergies and previous reactions to the medication. d) All of the above.
Answer: d) All of the above.
Explanation: Verifying all aspects ensures safe medication administration.
14. What is the significance of the "six rights" of medication administration?
a. It's a guideline that helps reduce medication errors. b. It's a legal requirement for all nurses. c. It's a suggestion, not a mandatory procedure. d. It's only applicable to certain medications.
Answer: a. It's a guideline that helps reduce medication errors.
Explanation: The six rights (right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation) are a critical guideline, not a legal requirement in and of itself, though adherence to them is strongly tied to legal compliance.
Patient Assessment and Vital Signs
15. Which of the following vital signs is considered the most reliable indicator of adequate tissue perfusion?
a) Blood pressure b) Pulse c) Temperature d) Respiratory rate
Answer: a) Blood pressure
Explanation: Blood pressure directly reflects the effectiveness of the circulatory system in delivering oxygen and nutrients to tissues.
16. What is considered a normal range for an adult's respiratory rate?
a) 12-20 breaths per minute b) 20-30 breaths per minute c) 30-40 breaths per minute d) 40-50 breaths per minute
Answer: a) 12-20 breaths per minute
Explanation: The normal adult respiratory rate falls within this range. Rates outside this range may indicate underlying health issues.
Hygiene and Comfort Measures
17. What is the proper technique for oral hygiene for an unconscious patient?
a) Use a stiff-bristled toothbrush. b) Position the patient on their back. c) Use a sponge swab to clean the mouth. d) Skip oral care since the patient is unconscious.
Answer: c) Use a sponge swab to clean the mouth.
Explanation: Sponge swabs are safer for unconscious patients as they prevent aspiration.
18. What is the primary purpose of turning and repositioning a bedridden patient?
a) To make the patient more comfortable. b) To prevent pressure ulcers. c) To improve circulation. d) All of the above.
Answer: d) All of the above.
Explanation: Turning and repositioning achieves all listed benefits.
Communication and Therapeutic Communication
19. Which of the following is an example of effective therapeutic communication?
a) Offering unsolicited advice b) Changing the subject frequently c) Using open-ended questions to encourage patient expression d) Interrupting the patient frequently
Answer: c) Using open-ended questions to encourage patient expression.
Explanation: Open-ended questions promote dialogue and understanding.
20. What is important to consider when communicating with a patient who has a hearing impairment?
a) Speak loudly and directly into their ear. b) Use clear and concise language and face the patient. c) Speak quickly to get the message across. d) Avoid using gestures.
Answer: b) Use clear and concise language and face the patient.
Explanation: Facing the patient allows lip reading and helps in clear communication. Loud speaking can be distorted.
This extensive set of practice questions provides a solid foundation for your Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1. Remember that consistent review, active learning, and understanding the underlying principles are key to success. Good luck!
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